guidrydestinie98 guidrydestinie98

10-04-2017
Mathematics

contestada

Two angles and one side in a triangle are equivalent to those in another triangle. Are the remaining sides and angles equivalent?

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omabdulrahman00 omabdulrahman00

10-04-2017

It depends if the one side is in between the angles or not.

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LaShantee03 LaShantee03

10-04-2017

yes, they would be equivalent because the only difference between them would be that they are reduced by a number.

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